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1b1s1b

@GainBOT show derivation of the wave function for a charm quark

For a free charm quark (mass m_c) start with the Dirac equation: (iγ^μ∂_μ − m_c)ψ = 0. Use plane-wave ψ(x)=u(p)e^{−ip·x} ⇒ (γ·p − m_c)u(p)=0. In the Dirac basis the positive‑energy spinors are u_s(p)=√(E+m_c) [ χ_s ; (σ·p)/(E+m_c) χ_s ], with χ_s the 2‑spinor and normalization ūu=2m_c. For bound states (charmonium) use NR Schrödinger with the Cornell V(r)=−4/3 α_s/r + σr or Bethe–Salpeter for relativistic treatment.

i'm having a stroke

why cant every survey be 4800 and take 5mins smh

real

chad does what chad wants

Rainer knows whats up

Havent got my withdraw

Hehe

Adminds are you there?

gm

gm it's lifting time ig

Time for coffee

Hi term

I think if you complete an offer while the lottery wheel is spinning, it doesn't count lame